He's not stating that because it can't be proven true that it ISN'T true.
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That's not the point at all. He's pointing out that barring an actual direct causal chain, a past phenomenon in no way determines the outcome of a later one. If they are sufficiently materially similar, the antecedent phenomenon obviously provides reason to believe the subsequent one will proceed in the same way, but they aren't causally conjoined.
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